onioncheese4 onioncheese4
  • 03-09-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 4 + (-3) equal to 1?

Respuesta :

agreenlee
agreenlee agreenlee
  • 03-09-2020
This is because 4+(-3) is also 4-3. So that equals 1
Answer Link
raushan197308
raushan197308 raushan197308
  • 03-09-2020

Step-by-step explanation:

4+(-3)=1

because when you open brackets + and - will be -, so 4-3=1

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Which of the following choices is true about ergogenic aids? A. They allow an athlete to exercise longer. B. They are illegal to use in competition. C. They are
What is the speed of a car that traveled 500 meter in 20 seconds?
not sure what the answer is??
How has film been used for propaganda
The molar mass of CO2 is 44.01 g/mole. Choose which of the following correctly represents this relationship correctly as a conversion factor. 1 mol CO2 = 44.01
PLEASE HELP WILL MARK BRAINLEST
100 POINTS!!! How do the differences of density caused by temperature and salinity affect the oceans? (Name at least 3 ways) ANYONE WHO PUTS ANY UNHELPFUL ANSWE
Betty and john martinez own 220 shares of exxonmobil common stock. exxonmobil's quarterly dividend is $1.76 per share. what is the amount of the dividend check
Word problem A Ferris wheel can accommodate 60 people in 30 minutes. How many people could ride the Ferris wheel in 5 hours? What was that rate per hours?
If there are 8 hours in 1 work day, how many half hours are there in 1 work day?