04-05-2020
Mathematics

contestada

Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

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arlen54 arlen54

04-05-2020

That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence

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lincolin lincolin

04-05-2020

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

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